3 way all in payout

[glenda]

I was playing cards last week and our group of friends is unclear as to how the payout should have gone. There were 3 of us left but only the top 2 were to be paid out. The chip leader had the best hand and won first place but 2nd place is where it got confusing.

Both 2nd place and 3rd place had a pair of kings -- one with a jack kicker and the other with a 3 kicker. Obviously the jack kicker is the better hand but that player had less chips than the 3 kicker player. Which player should have won 2nd place -- the person with the better hand or the person with the most chips?

[crack]

If the chip leader knocked them both out then the person with the most chips out of the other two finishes 2nd if I recall correctly.

[HalfSugar]

If the chip leader knocked them both out then the person with the most chips out of the other two finishes 2nd if I recall correctly.

You do.

[glenda]

How can the player with the worse hand win though? What if the player with less chips had a pair of queens and the player with more chips had only a nine high? Are you saying that nine high would win out and take 2nd place?

[jimmer]

why don't you tell us what all three hands were, the community cards and the player stack sizes

[crack]

How can the player with the worse hand win though? What if the player with less chips had a pair of queens and the player with more chips had only a nine high? Are you saying that nine high would win out and take 2nd place?

Because it's not a two way all in but a three way all in.

If the chip leader has AA, 2nd stack has TT and 3rd stack has JJ and it goes all in 3 way and AA wins, you don't then say "Right between the other two hands who has the best gets 2nd"

That is not how it works. The chipleader wins the whole pot thusly eliminating both opponents. It will then go on what their position was before the start of the hand. If you were 3rd in chips at the start of the hand then you will finish 3rd if you lose the pot to the chipleader regardless of what 2nd stack has.

[HalfSugar]

^^ This.

If it's a two way all-in, the fact is that you lost regardless of holdings. The same applies to a multi-way all-in - you all lost so whoever was winning at the start of the hand finishes higher. It's not like the guy with less chips can win anything from the other guy because they both lost the lot to the chip leader.

[glenda]

okay, thanks -- it makes sense now

[Northern Hillbilly]

In the off chance that both the losing players had the same chips at beginning of the hand then whoever went all in first loses first .


I believe, I may be wrong on that It has been awhile since I saw that and I think that was how it worked

[clarky]

So what is the payout structure? Is this an 18-man sng?

[golddog]

Another way to think of the question is who risked more in the hand. That's the person who gets the higher placement.