A question about breaking "tie" hands
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A question about breaking "tie" hands
I have read through the other posts on here about the topic and I want o make sure I am understanding correctly the rule on determing the highest hand. If I say smething that is not right please let me know because this is the toughest area of the game for new players to understand. I am concerned mainly with how the rules are interpreted in a casino.
The basic rule as I understand it is....The best 5 card hand wins the pot and if two players have the same 5 card hand the pot is split.
So if the board shows 7-7-7-4-4 and the last two players have A-K and K-Q so the pot is split since the best five card are board cards. The A versus K does not matter since they are not part of the hand correct? Or will a casino dealer use the A over K to award the pot to the A holding player?
If the board shows 2-5-7-9-K and the two players hold 9-8 and 9-6 then the two hands would read 9-9-K-8-7 and 9-9-K-7-6. In this case the highest card after the 9-9 pair both players share is the board K, which is also shared. Therefore you compare the 8 to the 7 and award the pot to the player holding the 8.
Am I understanding and applying the rule correctly? I know these examples are on the rare side as far as how often the come up but I want to ensure I'm not only understanding part of the rule or applying it correct in only some situations.
The basic rule as I understand it is....The best 5 card hand wins the pot and if two players have the same 5 card hand the pot is split.
So if the board shows 7-7-7-4-4 and the last two players have A-K and K-Q so the pot is split since the best five card are board cards. The A versus K does not matter since they are not part of the hand correct? Or will a casino dealer use the A over K to award the pot to the A holding player?
If the board shows 2-5-7-9-K and the two players hold 9-8 and 9-6 then the two hands would read 9-9-K-8-7 and 9-9-K-7-6. In this case the highest card after the 9-9 pair both players share is the board K, which is also shared. Therefore you compare the 8 to the 7 and award the pot to the player holding the 8.
Am I understanding and applying the rule correctly? I know these examples are on the rare side as far as how often the come up but I want to ensure I'm not only understanding part of the rule or applying it correct in only some situations.
- Duke879
- Posts: 3
- Joined: Fri Dec 03, 2010 3:29 am GMT
Re: A question about breaking "tie" hands
Duke879 wrote:The basic rule as I understand it is....The best 5 card hand wins the pot and if two players have the same 5 card hand the pot is split.
Correct. Cards 6 and 7 are always meaningless, with no exceptions.
Duke879 wrote:So if the board shows 7-7-7-4-4 and the last two players have A-K and K-Q so the pot is split since the best five card are board cards. The A versus K does not matter since they are not part of the hand correct? Or will a casino dealer use the A over K to award the pot to the A holding player?
It is a split, the AK and KQ they hold don't matter.
Duke879 wrote:If the board shows 2-5-7-9-K and the two players hold 9-8 and 9-6 then the two hands would read 9-9-K-8-7 and 9-9-K-7-6. In this case the highest card after the 9-9 pair both players share is the board K, which is also shared. Therefore you compare the 8 to the 7 and award the pot to the player holding the 8.
Am I understanding and applying the rule correctly?
Yes, all of the above is correct.
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HalfSugar - King Moderator
- Posts: 6228
- Joined: Mon Jan 20, 2003 5:20 pm GMT
- Location: UK
Re: A question about breaking "tie" hands
hello Duke,
yes, You are right and keep on coming with such type of questions. Nice discussion.
Dag Arbisa
yes, You are right and keep on coming with such type of questions. Nice discussion.
Dag Arbisa
-

ak2009 - Posts: 16
- Joined: Fri Jun 05, 2009 3:45 am GMT
- Location: Hong Kong
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