All-in / Side-pots / Folds

[MaverickCH]

Hi all,

I'm sure somewhere in this forum that issue has been discussed before, but I don't have enough time to check it.

Following problem arose during a private poker tournament:

Player A with 500 chips, Player B with 5000 and Player C with 7000.

Player A goes all-in (pre-flop) and B and C call. So there is 1500 chips in the main pot. Afterwards B and C continue betting until 2'500 chips were in the side pot, after the river card, C bets 3000 chips and B folds.

Community Cards:

A J 4 7 9

Player A Pocket Cards:

J 9 (2 pairs but lower than B)

Player B Pocket Cards:

A J (2 Pairs)

Player C Pocket Cards:

4 2 (1 pair)

So Player C sucessfully bluffed B out of the Side pot of 2'500 chips and gets that. In the main pot C loses against A as he only has one pair. BUT does the player B has any right to win the main pot? as he'd win with 2 higher pairs? Or is he out of any right to win any pot the second he folded against C?

We had a huge discussion about that and I couldn't find any clear rule on that in the internet.

Cheers

Ronnie

[groton]

B is out of luck for both pots

[MaverickCH]

that's what I thought, but thanks for the confirmation

[golddog]

There's something else to discuss though (I'm going to assume this is a friendly game with beginners).

Why did B and C continue betting? If everyone just called pre-flop, there's no side pot to bet into. Often, the remaining players will just check it down, hoping to eliminate the short stack and move up in money.

Of course, it depends on the difference between the places. If there's no significant difference, it sounds like C played it well, gathering a bunch of chips to take a big lead. B should've been more aggresive with two pair if he's going to bet into a dry side pot, it seems like.

Always situational too...

[MaverickCH]

It was a friendly game with few experienced players and some beginners. There were 5 players still in the game. When we play it is: the winner takes it all, and the prize money was $55 as two players made a re-buy.
So player C tried to get his stack up against B, I guess.
Is that a common rule to check after one has gone all-in? or if you have a good hand or can bluff well, like C, shouldn't you try to rip off B as well?

Sorry for the bad English!!

Cheers

Ronnie

[jimmer]

but I don't have enough time to check it.

So why should we have time to answer it?

[jimmer]

but I don't have enough time to check it.

So why should we have time to answer it?

I want to retract this comment and appologise to Maverick. I have since realised that we have all gotta start somewhere and my comment was the type of reply i'd expect on twoplustwo.

Hope i haven't caused you any offence and if you have any other comments or questions i'll try to be more constructive with my answers.

Once again, sorry.