Implied odds with pocket pairs. Input appreciated.

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I wanna discuss the importance of "implied odds" as opposed to "current odds".

Alright, lets say your at a $5/10 limit hold'em game, for simplicity sake.
Your dealt low-medium pocket pairs, for example 4-4, and its 1 bet to call when it comes to you. You call the bet along with 2 others, so its 3 of you to see the flop. Current pot odds made calling that bet 2 to 1.

We know we still pretty much need to hit a set of 4s to win this hand and statistically we can flop that 1 in 8 times, making us 7 to 1 underdog pre-flop. So looking solely at "current odds" pre-flop, we had pot odds of 2:1 with a 7:1 chance of flopping the probable best hand. Not that good at all.

Now we look at it from the "implied odds" point of view - if there are you and 2 others to see the entire hand, you will win the hand still about in 8 (7:1). Again for simplistic purposes, lets say you hit your 4 on the flop giving you a set of 4s. The other 2 players are going to stay in the hand until the showdown. That makes a total pot of $90 - $60 of it being pure profit.

Therefore, although pre-flop, the current pot odds were offering you 2 to 1, the actual "implied odds" (with 3 total players) were offering 20 to 1 (60/5). The 20 to 1 pot odds are so much greater than the 7 to 1 chance of hitting, that I believe it even greatly out-ways the chance of a straight or flush happening on some hands, solely because the odds aren't there for that player to draw out to the river in most cases.

And when you mis the trips on the flop 7 out of 8 times, you can always throw your hand away. Assuming your pocket pair is low enough that you don't think you have a good enough chance to win.

What does everyone think of that? Are there any corrections that need to be made in my calculations?

[Always_Bored]

it makes some sense. I usually play all pocket pairs if its cheap enough. And will fold on any raise if i dont hit anything unless i have a high pocket pair.