I'm really stuck and/or confused.

[jimmer]

I'm playing in a live £200 torny. There were 81 entrants (i think), I've been playing for what seems like 24 hours and am at the final table with five others. (I only entered this torny, because I won some money on the lotto!)

The blinds are 400/800. I have 12,600 chips and am holding 55 'on the button'. This guy is the BB and has around 18,000 chips. I call, he raises 6,000. He is the tightest player in the torny. I've been sitting on the same table with him most of the day and have only seen him play AA, KK, QQ, AK, or AQ suited. However in the last 20 minutes, he has played quite a few hands. I therefore think he has loosened up accordingly.

Knowing these facts I decide to call his raise. (I thought about going all-in and decided not to)

The flop is ; 467 rainbow.

He immediately goes all-in. I put him on AA, KK, or QQ. maybe AK or JJ, but nothing else.

I am pretty sure I have the worst hand AT THIS POINT.
I think I have 10 outs. These are four 3's, four 8's and two 5's (1:Is this correct?)
Working on this calculation, my chances of getting a straight are 5-to-1. My chances gaining trips are 23-to-1. However my combined odds for improving my hand and therefore beating his is 3.7-to-1. (2:Is this correct?)

I work out my pot odds are around 2.4-to-1 and therefore should just fold.

However, the big question i have is this; 3:assuming he has AA, knowing i have 55 and the flop is 467. how do i work out the odds of him winning?
I.e by how much is he the favorite and by how much am i the underdog?

[supafrey]

Cheaters way to quickly calc outs:

(Outs x 2) x number of streets left to see.

So in this case, 10x2x2= ~40%. However, with 2 of these outs (if your 5 hits) he's got a small redraw to spike his own set, so take off a couple %. I'd guess you're about 37% to win this hand, and this is with no calculator.

If you need an actual calc, use the one to the left =)