Q about implied odds

[Sentinel]

I know the concept of implied pot odds but what I don't get is how it is still mathematically valid.

Your opponent bets 100 to make 400 in pot. 100 to call. odds of 5/1. You need 7/1 to make a call but you know your opponent has 200 left and that he will put them in (the implied bit). Therefore increasing the odds (that's the implied bit).

The explanations I have seen, say 5/1 but with his extra 200, the pot will be 600 and thus at 100 to call, it's odds of 7/1.

However, I don't see how this increases the odds in anyway. You call the initial 100 at odds of 5/1. Your opp bets his remaining 200 to make the pot 700 which means you have to bet 200 to win. And this is only odds of 4.5/1.

[Sean_in_NJ]

The implication is that your $200 isn't going in the pot unless you make your hand. If you call a flop bet getting 7:1 implied, you still have to reevaluate on the turn if you miss your draw.

[snoogins47]

It's also important to remember that implied odds are never worth the full chip value people want them to be. Even if he's got 200 left, and you're positive he puts them in on the turn if you hit, you can only count the full 200 as part of your 'odds' if you are drawing to a LOCK hand. That's not the nuts, that's the nuts that cannot be beat. That's in addition to the fact that you can't really be positive that he's putting them in.

Basically implied odds are just an attempt to quantify the question "how do possible bets on the next card(s) affect my situation?"

But, look at your example, and pretend that every time you make your draw on the turn, it is the best hand, and he will always put all of his chips in the pot. Then it's straight addition, like you worked out.

Implied odds can also go the other way, too, when you have a hand that's good enough to pay off on future streets, even when your opponent catches up.