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quick question

Noob questions, poker rules clarifications, "who wins?" questions
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5 posts • Page 1 of 1

quick question

Postby DirtyHairy » Tue Jul 07, 2009 7:08 pm GMT

We have a normal weekly game of 9-10 players at 1 table and something came up last week that I was hoping you guys could back me up on.

Here goes...
I'm in a mid position and raise the big blind.
The person to the left of me then raises me.
The person to his left calls the raises and pushes all-in.
I call the re-raise and the all-in.
Here's where the problem arose...
The guy playing to my left tries to push all-in.
I told him all he can do is call the all-in since I didn't raise him back.

Can he push or just call the all-in?

I appreciate your help on this one.
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Postby golddog » Tue Jul 07, 2009 9:58 pm GMT

First, I hope they didn't say, "I call and raise", this is known as a string bet. Sounds like you guys are just starting out, and it's a social event, but make sure you're not doing that before going to a casino.

OK, to answer your question, if I'm reading this right, it depends on the size of the all-in relative to the raise coming to him. If he raised more than one-half of a legal raise, this re-opens the betting. If he raised one-half or less, all the other players can do for that round is call.

For example, if the blinds are 10 and 20, you raise to 50, next calls, then there's an all-in to 70, he has not technically re-raised you, and the betting is capped at 70.

However, if he went all-in for 150 and you called, there's an uncalled bet of 100 coming to you. Since it's a legal raise, you have the right to respond to with a raise, which you might do to isolate with the all-in player.

This may vary by casino, but I'm pretty sure what I've written is the common way to handle this.

Note: saw a flaw in my description, fixed. I guess the way I've always thought of it is if there's a legal raise coming to you, you have the right to re-raise.
Last edited by golddog on Mon Jul 13, 2009 9:29 pm GMT, edited 1 time in total.
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Postby HalfSugar » Tue Jul 07, 2009 10:12 pm GMT

I didn't realise that an under-raise counted as half the raise, I thought it was still an under-raise even if it were only, say, 5 chips short of the required 100 chip raise. You learn something new every day.
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Postby DirtyHairy » Wed Jul 08, 2009 12:42 am GMT

Sorry, I should have clarified. We buy in $20 and get $40 in chips, blinds raising every 20 mins starting @ .50/1. When this happened the blinds were 3/6. The guy to the left of me had the most chips, I was 2nd within $20 of him, and the guy to my far left barely had more than the re-raise.

Thanks for the response
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Postby jimmer » Wed Jul 08, 2009 6:59 am GMT

I think the question Dirty is asking is far easier than that.
DirtyHairy wrote:.........The guy playing to my left tries to push all-in.
I told him all he can do is call the all-in since I didn't raise him back.

DirtyHairy then wrote:....... The guy to the left of me had the most chips......


As he has the most chips he can push-all in. So, unfortunatley you are wrong. The third guy is all-in, so his all-in bet, + equal amounts provided by you and the guy to you left equate to the side pot (which is all the third guy can win).

You then have a side pot containing the rest of his all-in bet and your money (if you decide to call)

Simply all that has happened is; You raise, the guy to you left re-raises. The third guy pushes all-in everyone else folds. You call the third guys all-in bet, but the guy to your left re-raises you again.

....if I read it right???
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