question on amount you can win

[wetherbee101]

My question is the following:

The big blind is $1,000 and the small is $500. The small blind folds and the remaining player only has $100 left in his chip stack and goes all in e.g. he's short $900 on the bet to cover the big blind. The cards are tuned over and the big blind loses the hand to the player who was not able to cover the big blind in the first place. How much does the winner get to take. The argument we had was that he could not take more than he had to bet, the $100 he wagered plus $100 of the $1000 big blind. He argued that he had the right to all of the big blind.

Who is correct?

Thanks.

[crack]

If player 1: has whatever say $5000 and is in the big blind.

Player 2 has $100 and has gone all in, player 1 will get 900 oh his chips back and the pot will only be for the size that he has to bet.

So the pot he can only win will be the $100 he puts in, $100 from the small blind and $100 from the big blind. The rest will go to the other player.

[HalfSugar]

You can never win more from each player than the amount you are able to wager. There is no exception to this, even if you complain really loudly.

[jimmer]

You can never win more from each player than the amount you are able to wager. There is no exception to this, even if you complain really loudly.

Unless you are in an illegal game with a group of guys you have never met before and the 23 stone guy who only has half an ear takes more.

In this case, it is ok and you lose.