Quick Odds Question

[Dat_Dude]

I am pretty good with odds, but a buddy had a question that I wanted to verify. I feel kind of silly even asking, but it is mainly semantics.

Is the percentage of a hand PREFLOP represent the percentage of the time it wins if it goes all the way to showdown?

For Example:

Player 1: A A
Player 2: 6 6

Now I know that Player 1 PREFLOP is almost an 81% favorite to win that hand. Does this mean 81% of the time this hand will win if it goes all the way to showdown?

[Dave B]

yes

[supafrey]

nods.

[Johny]

What else could it mean?

[kainARGH]

What else could it mean?

I sympathize with OP , as I used to struggle with the following concept.

If your 47/53 % to win a hand PF ...... yest on the turn say your NOW 95% likly to win ..... and you lose.......Did I just suffer a 5% bad beat , or no beat at all as it was nearly 50/50 pre flop?

Example ,

cash game:

1010 VS AKs

flop Axx turn x river 10

Now we were just 50/50 pre flop , but afte the flop and turn , I was only loseing 5% of the time....I think I overthink stuff to much

[tame_deuces]

What else could it mean?

I sympathize with OP , as I used to struggle with the following concept.

If your 47/53 % to win a hand PF ...... yest on the turn say your NOW 95% likly to win ..... and you lose.......Did I just suffer a 5% bad beat , or no beat at all as it was nearly 50/50 pre flop?

Example ,

cash game:

1010 VS AKs

flop Axx turn x river 10

Now we were just 50/50 pre flop , but afte the flop and turn , I was only loseing 5% of the time....I think I overthink stuff to much

Following this logic you would deliver a horrible bad beat if you got all in preflop with AA vs 65, flop comes 347, turn A, river 3. :D

Always look at the odds from where the money went in.

[kainARGH]

What else could it mean?

I sympathize with OP , as I used to struggle with the following concept.

If your 47/53 % to win a hand PF ...... yest on the turn say your NOW 95% likly to win ..... and you lose.......Did I just suffer a 5% bad beat , or no beat at all as it was nearly 50/50 pre flop?

Example ,

cash game:

1010 VS AKs

flop Axx turn x river 10

Now we were just 50/50 pre flop , but afte the flop and turn , I was only loseing 5% of the time....I think I overthink stuff to much

Following this logic you would deliver a horrible bad beat if you got all in preflop with AA vs 65, flop comes 347, turn A, river 3. :D

Always look at the odds from where the money went in.

yea , it took me a little while to finally relize - duh! its odds from the perspective of - how many chips were paid off and at what point.